(Answer) (Category) SIP FAQ : (Category) SIP Protocol Operation :
Why does a proxy server doing TCP need to be stateful?
The situation comes up in a proxy which is TCP on the upstream side and UDP in the downstream side (see diagram below).
       TCP            UDP
 UA1 -------- Proxy --------- UA2

Lets assume that this proxy is stateless, meaning that it holds the TCP connection state but otherwise does not store transaction state. According to the specification, requests are not retransmitted over TCP. So, the UA1 sends its request, say an INVITE, just once over the TCP connection. The proxy receives this, and forwards it to UA2. Its lost. UA1 will not retransmit (since its TCP), and neither will the proxy, since its stateless, thus, the message is lost.

[Append to This Answer]
jdrosen@dynamicsoft.com, islepchin@dynamicsoft.com
2000-Oct-27 3:18pm
Previous: (Answer) How does a proxy handle a method other than the standard INVITE, ACK, BYE, etc.?
Next: (Answer) In computing the Content-Length, does the newline in a body count as one byte or two (CR vs. CR-LF)?
This document is: http://www.cs.columbia.edu/~hgs/sip/faq.cgi?file=87
[Search] [Appearance]
This is a Faq-O-Matic 2.710.
This FAQ administered by Henning Schulzrinne